14 Votes in Poll
4 Votes in Poll
So if you need help on this sort of question
-if 1 kg of sugar is $2
How much is 500 g of sugar?-
It's the price of 500 g of sugar you want to find out, right? Well two 500s are 1kg so 2 divided by 2 is 1.
Why am I dividing 2 by 2? Because 1 kg is $2, and two 500s are 1kg (what I struggle with)
And the answer is $1
At least, I think so :p
Another sum.
-If 1 kg of sugar is $4
How much is 250 g of sugar?-
Four 250s are 1kg and 1kg of sugar is $6 so $4 divided by 4 = $1
I haven't learnt how to do hard sums like that yet :(
Maths is sooooooooo hard for me, I know this seems childish but I need help with this
If 1kg of pasta is $12, how much is 250 g of pasta? Please reply as soon as u can tnks!!
Could you tell me the method
The short answer to this question is NO.
To represent any number in a given base, means to **measure** it in that base.
1/3 cannot be measured in base 10, so it is foolish to claim that 1/3 = 0.333...
The most important number theorem is described in the following article:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=1o5kcWvU35tdt_SY83UFnXZAlsKBAsSYH
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yMqGM3B6Zhw